Friday 5 December 2014

Important Events

IMPORTANT EVENTS OF PAKISTAM MOVEMENT FROM 1040-1947 1948)
INTRODUCTION
The era from 1940 to 1947 is the era of rapid changes.Many important events in the most prominent among them.In the past,the demand of Pakistan was not raised clearly.It was due to Muslim achievements in this period that now we are living in a sovereign and independent state.The political events from Pakistan Resolution to the establishment of Pakistan are summarized under:
1940 :
Ø 23rd March-Pakistan Resolution:
The attitude of the Hindus made it clear that the Hindus and the Muslims were two separate nations.On March 23rd ,at the annual session of Muslim League at Lahore,the famous resolution,commonly known as the Pakistan Resolution was passed.It was presented by Maulvi Fazlul Haq.Quiad-e-Azam said in his address:
"By all means Muslims are one nation and they need a separate homeland where they could live their spiritual,cultural,economical,social and political lives independently."
-August Offer:
It was proposed to enlarged governor general councils to include members from political parties. War Advisory Committee was also launched. Both league and Congress rejected the offer.
1942:
ü 12th -15th April-Civil Disobedience Movement:
28th session of League was held at Madras in which a resolution was adopted on Civil Disobedience Movement launched by Congress.
ü 23rd March-Crisp Mission:
Sir Stafford Cripps was sent by the British Government to India,to discuss with Indian leaders,the future Indian Constitutions.His proposal was rejected by both the Congress and the League.The Congress Characterized them us "a post-dated cheque on a failing bank."Jinnah said that if these were accepted "Muslims would become a minority in their majority provinces as well."
ü 8th AUgust-Quit India:
Congress initiated it against British,it was "open rebellion" due to which many people were killed League raised a slogan of "Divide and Quite India".
1943:
·       27th December-Action Committee:
It was formed to prepare and organized Muslims of India for coming struggle for achievements of Pakistan.
1944:
§  9th September-Gandhi Jinnah Talks:
Gandhi held talks with Jinnah to discuss about the future of India,but no fruitful results came out of it because Gandhi did not accept Muslims as a separate nation.
"The wall between Jinnah and Gandhi was the Two Nation Theory."
1945:
*    25th June-Simla Conference:
Lord Wavell called a conference at Simla.The conference failed to achieve any purpose due to one sided attitude of Lord Wavell. In this conference ,Quiad-e-Azam made it crystal clear that the Muslim League  represent Muslim of India.

*    2nd December General Elections:
Elections for the central and provincial assemblies were held in 1945-1946 in which Muslim League won 30 seats of central legislative meant for Muslims and 430 seats out of 495 in the provincial legislative
1946:
v 24th March-Cabinet Mission:
Cabinet Mission visited India in 1946 and submitted its recommendations to the British. As a result Interim Government was formed but Congress and league couldn't co-operate amongst themselves
16th August-Direct Action Day:

League withdraw its acceptance of Cabinet Mission and Direct Action Day was observed peacefully throughout India,except in Calcutta,where riots broke out.
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Basic English - Assignments

ESTION 62
What is the maximum difference between a NTP server's clock and the system clock for synchronization to be successful?

A.   60 seconds
B.   120 seconds
C.  600 seconds
D.   1000 seconds
Answer: D

QUESTION 63
Where are files queued for transmission when using the configuration archive transfer-oncommit function?

A.   /var/config
B.   /var/queue
C.   /var/transfer/queue
D.   /var/transfer/config
Answer: D

QUESTION 64
Which command configures the router to send SNMP link-related notifications such as up-down transitions and line status changes?

A.  set snmp trap-group my-trap-group link-status
B.   set snmp trap-group my-trap-group categories link
C.  set snmp log link-status
D.  set snmp trap link-status
Answer: B

QUESTION 65
Which naming convention is used by Juniper Routers when archiving their configurations to a remote server?

A.yyyymmdd_HHMMSS_host-name_juniper.conf.gz
B.  host-name_juniper.conf.gz_yyyymmdd_HHMMSS
C.yyyyymmdd_HHMMSS_host-name_juniper.conf
D.  host-name_juniper.conf_yyyymmdd_HHMMSS
Answer: B

QUESTION 66
Which command allows you to view interface usage details in real-time?

A.   user@host> debug interface interface-name
B.   user@host> monitor usage interface-name
C.   user@host> monitor interface interface-name
D.   user@host> traceoptions interface interface-name
Answer: C

QUESTION 67
The monitor traffic command closely resembles which UNIX-based utility?

A.   ps -x
B.  passwd
C.   ls -a-l

D.  tcpdump
Answer: D

QUESTION 68
Which type of traffic will cause Policed Discards errors on an interface on a JUNOS device?

A.   Traffic that does not match any route in the forwarding table.
B.  Traffic that exceeds the bandwidth of the interface.
C.  Traffic of unsupported protocols on that interface.
D.  Traffic arriving on unknown virtual-circuits on that interface.
Answer: C

QUESTION 69
If a SONET/SDH interface transmit link fails between two JUNOS devices, which two alarms or defects would be seen on those devices? (Choose two.)

A.   LOS
B.   REI
C.   BIP-B3
D.   RDI
Answer: AD

QUESTION 70
To troubleshoot interface problems, you can use both the disable command and the deactivate command. Which two statements are correct?

A.  If the interface is disabled, the logical unit will administratively shutdown.
B.  If the interface is deactivated, the physical interface will administratively shutdown.
C.  If the interface is deactivated, the interface configuration is ignored during commit.
D.  If the interface is disabled, the logical unit configuration is ignored during commit.
Answer: BC

QUESTION 71
In Ethernet networks, duplex mismatches will lower performance. Which error statistics can be seen if a duplex mismatch is present?

A. collisions on the full-duplex side; runts on the half-duplex side
B.  collisions on the full-duplex side; collisions on the half-duplex side
C.  collisions on the half-duplex side; framing errors on the full-duplex side
D.  collisions on the half-duplex side; giants on the full-duplex side
Answer: C

QUESTION 72
When using the monitor traffic command to view traffic arriving on an interface, which command would save the data collected to a file on the router?

A.  monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0 save <file>
B.  monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0 | write <file>
C.  monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0 write-file <file>
D.  monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0 | collect <file>
Answer: C

QUESTION 73
Which command would you type to see a concise display of which interfaces are up and which are down?

A.  show interfaces brief
B.  show interfaces status
C.  show ip interface brief
D.  show interfaces terse
Answer: D

QUESTION 74
When troubleshooting ATM, which command would allow you to test reachability from one side of an ATM cloud to the other?
A.  ping atm vci 0.100 interface at-0/1/0 end-to-end
B.  ping atm vci 0.100 interface at-0/1/0 circuit
C.   ping atm vci 0.100 interface at-0/1/0 far-end
D.   ping atm vci 0.100 interface at-0/1/0 final-hop
Answer: A

QUESTION 75
Which three SONET network elements are used for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)

A.   line
B.   path
C.   circuit
D.   section
E.  segment
Answer: ABD

QUESTION 76
What is used to view status messages sent to a file named "test" as they are sent?

A. monitor start test
B.  show log test
C.  view log test
D. show test | realtime
Answer: A

QUESTION 77
Which command is used to retrieve the serial numbers of a Juniper device?

A.  show version
B.  show chassis hardware
C.  show hardware detail
D.  view hardware database
Answer: B

QUESTION 78
Which command is used to show active alarms on a Juniper device?

A.  file list alarm
B.  show chassis alarms
C.  show chassis state
D.  show hardware alarms
Answer: B

QUESTION 79
Which operational command allows a user to view the exhaust temperatures of a Juniper device?

A.  show chassis state
B.  file list alarm
C.  show chassis alarms
D.  show chassis environment
Answer: D

QUESTION 80
Which command will show which message is displayed on a Juniper Router's LCD status screen?

A.   show chassislcd
B.   show chassis fpd
C.  show chassis craft-interface
D.  show chassis status-window
Answer: C

QUESTION 81
Which command would allow you to login to FPC 1 to collect FPC specific logs?

A.  start shell fpc1
B.  start shell tnp1
C.  start shell tnp address 1
D.  start shell pfe network fpc1
Answer: D

QUESTION 82
Which command will display the temperature of the Routing Engine's CPU?

A.  show chassis environment
B.  show chassis routing-engine
C.  show chassis temperatures
D.  show chassis status
Answer: B

QUESTION 83
Which command allows you to decode packets in JUNOS?

A.  debug packet interface-name
B.  show interface extensive
C.  traceoptions interface-name
D.  monitor traffic interface interface-name
Answer: D

QUESTION 84
The monitor traffic command provides access to which utility?

A.tcpdump
B.telnet
C.traceroute
D.netstat
Answer: A

QUESTION 85
Which two statements regarding traceroute on JUNOS devices are correct? (Choose two.)

A.  Traceroute transmits ICMP echo-request packets.
B.  Traceroute transmits UDP packets.
C.  Traceroute receives ICMP echo-reply packets.
D.  Traceroute receives ICMP port-unreachable packets.
Answer: BD

QUESTION 86
If you want to test if fragmentation is causing problems on the network, which two ping command options are useful? (Choose two.)

A.   ttl
B.  size
C.  rapid
D.  do-not-fragment
Answer: BD

QUESTION 87
Which command would initiate a loopback on a Gigabit Ethernet interface ge-0/0/0?

A.  # set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 loopback
B.  # set interfaces ge-0/0/0 gigether-options loopback
C.  > set interfaces ge-0/0/0 loopback
D.  > loopback ge-0/0/0
Answer: B

QUESTION 88
When a local loopback is activated on a PPP serial link, what indicates that the local interface is good?

A.  A ping to the local address succeeds.
B.  A ping to the remote address succeeds.
C. A ping to the remote address received a 'TTL expired' message.
D.  The interface shows a flag indicating that a loop is detected.
Answer: D

QUESTION 89
Which two loopback types are supported for serial interfaces on Juniper devices? (Choose two.)

A.   Local
B.   Far End
C.   Remote
D.   Bidirectional
Answer: AC

QUESTION 90
How is a loopback cleared on interface ge-0/0/0?

A.   Issue the operational command clear interfaces ge-0/0/0 loopback local.
B.  No command is necessary, the loopback times-out in 5 minutes.
C.   Issue the configuration command clear interfaces ge-0/0/0 loopback, then commit.
D.   Issue the configuration command delete interfaces ge-0/0/0 gigether-optionsloopback , then commit.
Answer: D

QUESTION 91
Which CLI command is used to upgrade a Juniper router?

A.   load package
B.   load override terminal
C.   request system software add
D.  request system software upgrade
Answer: C

QUESTION 92
When performing password recovery, which command should be entered at the boot prompt?

A.   boot -s
B.   boot -r
C.   boot single
D.   boot recovery
Answer: A

QUESTION 93
What are three correct steps to reset a lost root password? (Choose three.)

A.   Press the TAB key when prompted.
B.   Enter boot -p.
C.  Enter recovery when prompted.
D.   Commit the change.
E.   Reboot.
Answer: CDE

QUESTION 94
In which routing table would you find an OSPF V2 route?

A.   ipv4-unicast
B.   inet.0
C.    inet.4
D.    inet.ipv4
Answer: B

QUESTION 95
By default, which routing table is used to store unicast IPv4 routes?

A.   inet.0
B.   inet.1
C.   inet.2
D.   inet.3
Answer: A

QUESTION 96
Which two statements are correct about routing tables in JUNOS? (Choose two.)

A.   There are separate tables for IPv4 and IPv6 called inet.0 and inet6.0 respectively.
B.   They only contain the best possible route to each destination.
C.   All running protocols can populate the routing tables at the same time.
D.   Routes with the highest preference value are placed as active routes in the routing table.
Answer: AC

QUESTION 97
Which type of routes are held in Inet.0?

A. multicast and unicast IPv4 routes
B.  ARP tables and MAC reachability
C.  IP version 4 unicast routes
D.  IP version 6 and IP version 4 routes
Answer: C

QUESTION 98
Which two statements are correct regarding default protocol preference values? (Choose two.)

A.  OSPF has a single preference value for both internal and external routes.
B.   RIP is preferred over OSPF external routes.
C.   Direct, local, and static routes have the same preference value.
D.  OSPF's preference value is lower than BGP (both IBGP and EBGP).
Answer: BD

QUESTION 99
What is the role of route preference?

A.  It is used to determine which route should become active.
B.  It is used to select which routing table to use for forwarding.
C. It is used to determine what routes to accept into the routing table.
D.  It is used to select the best route between multiple equal cost paths.
Answer: A

QUESTION 100
What is the default protocol preference for OSPF external routes?

A.  10
B.  15
C.  150
D.  160
Answer: C

QUESTION 101
When you display the routing table by entering the show route command, what does the
* indicate?

A.  The route is a direct route.
B.  The route was selected as active.
C.  The route is a default route.
D.  The route was learned using a dynamic routing protocol.
Answer: B

QUESTION 102
Which command allows viewing of only OSPF routes?

A.   show ip ospf route
B.   show ip route protocol ospf
C.   show route protocol ospf
D.   show ospf table
Answer: C

QUESTION 103
Which two statements are true of the forwarding table? (Choose two.)

A.  The forwarding table is stored in the control plane only.
B.  The forwarding table contains both active and inactive routes.
C.   The forwarding table is stored in the control plane and the forwarding plane.
D.   The forwarding table uses a longest match lookup for forwarding decisions.
Answer: CD

QUESTION 104
Which statement is true about a forwarding table?

A.   It stores a subset of information from the routing table.
B.  It contains routes learned from all protocols to a destination.
C.  It provides a database for routes selected and placed into the routing table.
D.  Every routing protocol maintains its own forwarding table.
Answer: A

QUESTION 105
Which statement accurately defines the role of a Qualified Next Hop?

A.  It is any alternative path for best effort traffic.
B.   It is the next hop of the active route to a directly attached device.
C.  It is the next hop for a route from a qualified protocol.
D.  It is an alternative next hop for a static route.
Answer: D

QUESTION 106
What is correct regarding the configuration shown below?
static route 0.0.0.0/0
qualified-next-hop 172.30.25.1 preference 7
next-hop 172.30.25.5

A.   The next-hop 172.30.25.1 is selected because the address has the lowest value.
B.  The next-hop 172.30.25.1 is selected because it is listed first.
C.   The next-hop 172.30.25.1 is selected because it is the lowest protocol preference.
D.  The next-hop 172.30.25.5 is selected because it is the lowest protocol preference.
Answer: D

QUESTION 107
What are three advantages of dynamic routing protocols over static routing protocols?(Choose three.)

A.  lower administrative overhead
B.  increased network availability
C.  greater network scalability
D.  easier to implement qualified next hops
E.  easier ECMP route implement
Answer: ABC

QUESTION 108
Which statement is correct about a Routing Policy term?

A.  A term must contain a "from" statement.
B.  A term acts like "if" and "then" statements.
C.  The most specific term has precedence.
D.  Terms can be written in any order to achieve the same behavior.
Answer: B

QUESTION 109
A routing policy has three terms and the first term of the policy does not contain a terminating action. What will become of the routes after they have been evaluated by the first term?

A.   In the absence of a terminating action, all routes are accepted.
B.  The route will be evaluated by the second term in the policy.
C.  The default action will be applied.
D.  In the absence of a termination action, all routes are rejected.
Answer: B

QUESTION 110
Which statement is true about import and export routing policies?

A.  Import policies concern routes received and determine which routes get put into the routing table.
B.  Export policies concern routes received and determine which routes get put into the routing table.
C.  Export policies are applied before the routing table.
D.  Import polices are applied after the routing table.
Answer: A


QUESTION 111
Your routing table contains four static routes which you need to redistribute to your OSPF peers. Which method would accomplish this?

A.   Apply an import policy to OSPF; this will import the static routes into OSPF.
B.  Apply an export policy to protocol "static"; this will export the routes to other protocols.
C.  Apply an import policy to the forwarding table; this will import the routes, allowing them to be forwarded to OSPF neighbors.
D.  Apply an export policy to OSPF; this will export the static routes to your OSPF neighbors.
Answer: D

QUESTION 112
Which three are considered match criteria in a policy? (Choose three.)

A.  prefix-list
B.  protocol ospf
C.  next-term
D.  AS path
E.  prefix-term
Answer: ABD

QUESTION 113
What is a vaild match criteria for a firewall filter?

A.   from protocol tcp
B.  fromurl
C.  from community
D.  from acl
Answer: A

QUESTION 114
Which two policy actions are considered flow control actions? (Choose two.)

A.  reject
B.  community add
C.  next term
D.  next policy
Answer: CD

QUESTION 115
What is a vaild action for a firewall filter?

A.  then drop
B.  then count
C.  then allow
D.  then communityadd
Answer: B

QUESTION 116
What happens when a route does not match any user configured policies?

A.   The route is rejected.
B.   The route is accepted.
C.   The route is given a lower priority.
D.    The route is sent to the default policy.
Answer: D

QUESTION 117
Click the Exhibit button.
 term 1 {
 from protocol ospf;
then { preference 110;
accept;
})
term 2 {
from protocol static;
 then accept;}
term 3 {
 from {
protocol static;
route-filter 172.10.0.0/16 orlonger; }
 then reject; }
 term 4 {
 from {
protocol static;
route-filter 172.10.16.0/24 exact; }
 then next policy;}
 Given the policy shown in the exhibit, what will happen to Static route 172.10.16.0/24?

A.   accept
B.   reject
C.   next-policy
D.   go to default policy
Answer: A

QUESTION 118
Which two commands are needed to create and apply an export policy that advertises static routes to OSPF neighbors? (Choose two.)

A.   edit policy-options policy-statement policy-name set term 1 from protocol static set term 1 then accept
B.   edit ospf policy set from protocol static set 1 then accept
C.   set protocols OSPF export policy-name
D.   set protocols OSPF policy policy-name
Answer: AC

QUESTION 119
You are configuring a firewall filter. Which "from" criterion would match only those packets destined for 10.10.10.1?

A.  [edit firewall filter test] root@router# set term 1 from address 10.10.10.1
B.   [edit firewall filter test] root@router# set term 1 from destination-address 10.10.10.1
C.   [edit firewall filter test] root@router# set term 1 from destination 10.10.10.1
D.   [edit firewall filter test]
Answer: B

QUESTION 120
How do you send static routes to a RIP neighbor?

A.   By default, RIP automatically sends static routes.
B.  Configure the static route with a next hop of the RIP neighbor.
C.  Configure redistribute static under [edit protocols rip].
D.   Apply an export policy within RIP that matches on the routes, and accepts it.
Answer: D

QUESTION 121
Which two statements describe the default routing policy for BGP? (Choose two.)

A.  Advertise only locally originated routes.
B.  Accept all BGP routes and import into inet.0.
C.  Advertise all active BGP routes.
D.  Advertise only EBGP routes.
Answer: BC

QUESTION 122
Click the Exhibit button.
term 1 {from {
 source-address {
 0.0.0.0/0;
  } destination-address {
 10.1.0.0/16;
  } }Then {
 log;reject;  }}
term 2 {
 from {
 destination-address {
 10.1.1.0/24;   } }
 then accept;  }
term 3 {  from {
 source-address {
 20.2.0.0/16; }
 destination-address {
 10.1.0.0/16;
 10.1.1.1/32 except;
} } }}
Given the firewall filter shown the exhibit, a packet has a source IP address of 20.2.2.1 and a
destination address of 10.1.1.1. How can the packet be changed to discard and count it?

A.   rename term 4 to term 1
B.   rename term 1 to term 5
C.  insert term 4 before term 1
D.  insert term 4 before term 3
Answer: C

QUESTION 123
What is the proper order for CoS processing for ingress packets on a Juniper router?
A.   Multifield Classifier > Forwarding Policy > Policing > BA Classifier
B.  Multifield Classifier > Policing > BA Classifier > Forwarding Policy
C.   BA Classifier > Policing > Multifield Classifier > Forwarding Policy
D.   BA Classifier > Forwarding Policy > Policing > Multifield Classifier
Answer: C

QUESTION 124
What is the last CoS process performed prior to a packet leaving a router?

A.   Rewrite Marker
B.   Multifield Classifier
C.   Policing
D.   BA Classifier
Answer: A

QUESTION 125
What is the first CoS process performed when a packet enters a JUNOS device?

A.   Rewrite Marker
B.   Multifield Classifier
C.   Policing
D.   BA Classifier
Answer: D

QUESTION 126
When is the BA Classifier engaged for identifying the forwarding class of traffic in a Juniper router?

A.  after a packet is identified by a multifield classifier
B.  after the traffic passes though a shaper
C.  prior to ingress policing of traffic
D.   while the packet is stored in the switching fabric of the router
Answer: C

QUESTION 127
What is the primary purpose for the classification of traffic in a router?

A.  to use the classification to route traffic
B.  to use the classification to reorder packets from various sources
C.  to use the classification to discard malformed packets
D.  to use the classification to provide the configured service level
Answer: D

QUESTION 128
Which two options are reasons for using traffic classification? (Choose two.)

A.  to use the classification to route traffic
B.  to use the classification to reorder packets from various sources
C.  to use the classification to discard malformed packets
D.  to use the classification to provide the configured service level
Answer: AD

QUESTION 129
Rewrite rules are used in which CoS scenario?

A.   When a single device is configured to provide differentiated services.
B.  When multiple devices in a network are configured to useCoS to provide differentiated services.
C.  When a device is used to connect to another autonomous system.
D.  When CoS is used to classifiy traffic as low priority.
Answer: B

QUESTION 130
What is the purpose of classification, rewrites, and queuing in Juniper routers?

A.  0to provide policy based routing
B.  to provide class of service capabilities
C.  to provide firewall filtering capabilities
D.  to provide unified threat managment
Answer: B




QUESTION 131
What are three components of a scheduler? (Choose three.)

A.   Forwarding Class
B.   Priority
C.   TOS Marking
D.   Buffer Size
E.    RED Configuration
Answer: BDE

QUESTION 132
What are the contents of a scheduler?

A.   A scheduler contains parameters that describe how a queue should be serviced.
B.  A scheduler contains traffic that is ready to be transmitted.
C.  A scheduler contains forwarding classes that allow traffic to be forwarded.
D.   A scheduler contains a map between the classification of a packet and its forwarding class.
Answer: A

QUESTION 133
With which two does a scheduler map associate? (Choose two.)

A.   Scheduler
B.  BA Classifier
C.  Queues
D.  Interface
Answer: CD
QUESTION 134
When configuring a scheduler map, which two are referenced? (Choose two.)

A.  Forwarding Class
B.   Scheduler
C.   Rewrite Rules
D.   Priority
Answer: AB

QUESTION 135
Which command sequence shows traffic per queue for an interface?

A.  show interfaces queue ge-0/0/0
B.  show statistics queue detail
C.  show interfaces ge-0/0/0 statistics extensive
D.  monitor interface ge-0/0/0 queue
Answer: A

QUESTION 136
Which command sequence displays queue statistics for an interface?

A.  monitor interface ge-0/0/0 queue
B.  show interfaces queue ge-0/0/0
C.  show interfaces ge-0/0/0 statistics extensive
D.  show statistics queue detail
Answer: B

QUESTION 137
What represents the binary equivalence of 192.168.187.201?

A.  10101000 11001000 10101001 10101001
B.  11000000 10101100 10101011 11000101
C.  11000000 10101000 10111011 11001001
D.  11000100 10101010 10110011 11001011
Answer: C

QUESTION 138
What represents the binary equivalence of96.6.231.148?

A.  10101000 11001000 10101001 10101001
B.  01010000 00010110 11010101 10100110
C.  01100000 00000110 11100111 10010100
D.  01100100 00100101 11100100 10010111
Answer: C

QUESTION 139
What represents the decimal equivalence of 10101100 00011111 11001001 11000101?

A.  172.28.187.189
B.  172.31.201.197
C.  172.30.231.182
D.  172.19.151.107
Answer: B


QUESTION 140
Which two statements accurately describe a broadcast domain? (Choose two.)

A.  Broadcast domains consist of devices that connect to a common switch or hub.
B.  Broadcast domains consist of a group of devices that can be reached by sending a frame addressed to the Layer 2 broadcast address.
C.  Broadcast domains require a gateway device such as a router.
D.   Broadcast domains consist of devices that reside on the same sub-network.
Answer: BD

QUESTION 141
Which two statements best describes the role of a router on a broadcast domain? (Choose two.)
A.  Routers facilitate communications within a broadcast domain.
B.  Routers facilitate communications between broadcast domains.
C.  Routers are used to break up broadcast domains into separate networks.
D.  Routers are used to connect small broadcast domains and form larger more efficient broadcast domains.
Answer: BC

QUESTION 142
Which two statements are true regarding an Ethernet collision domain? (Choose two.)

A.  If a switch is used, the collision domain includes all devices connected to the switch.
B.  If a hub is used, the collision domain includes all devices connected to the hub.
C.  If a hub is used, the collision domain is limited to each device and the hub.
D.  If a switch is used, the collision domain is limited to each device and the switch.
Answer: BD

QUESTION 143
Which two statements are true regarding an Ethernet collision domain? (Choose two.)

A.  The likelihood of collisions occurring increases when a switch is used.
B.  The likelihood of collisions occurring increases when a hub is used.
C.  If a hub is used, the collision domain is limited to each device and the hub.
D.  If a switch is used, the collision domain is limited to each device and the switch.
Answer: BD

QUESTION 144
Which three of the following options are NOT fields found in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)

A.  Version
B.  Type
C.  Source Port
D.  Flags
E.   Data
Answer: ACD

QUESTION 145
Which two fields are found in an Ethernet frame? (Choose two.)

A.  Version
B.  TTL
C.  Checksum
D.  Flags
E.  Data
Answer: CE

QUESTION 146
Given the host IP address of 192.168.100.60 and a network mask of 255.255.255.224 (or /27), which address represents the correct network address for the referenced host?

A.  192.168.100.48
B.  192.168.100.16
C.   192.168.100.0
D.  192.168.100.32
Answer: D

QUESTION 147
Given the IP address range 192.168.100.0 through 192.168.100.255, which network mask segments these addresses into 16 subnets?

A.  255.255.255.224
B.  255.255.255.240
C.  255.255.255.248
D.  255.255.255.252
Answer: B

QUESTION 148
Which two statements about subnet masks are true? (Choose two.)

A.   If a bit is turned on (1), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the host portion.
B.  If a bit is turned off (0), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the host portion.
C.  If a bit is turned on (1), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the network prefix.
D.  If a bit is turned off (0), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the network prefix.
Answer: BC

QUESTION 149
You are the network administrator setting up the IP network for a new branch office. You need at least 5 networks with 25 hosts each. You have been allocated a /24 network. Which prefix length will satisfy the given requirements?
A. /24
B. /26
C.  /27
D.  /28
Answer: C

QUESTION 150
Which three statements describe the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)? (Choose three.)

A.  TCP is a transport layer protocol.
B.  TCP is faster than the User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
C.  TCP provides delivery notification and error checking mechanisms.
D.  TCP uses a best effort delivery approach.
E.   TCPapplication examples include HTTP and SMTP.
Answer: ACE

QUESTION 151
Which three statements describe the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose three.)
A.  UDP provides delivery notification and error checking mechanisms.
B.  UDP is faster than the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).
C.  UDP application examples include DNS and VoIP.
D.  UDP is an application layer protocol.
E.  UDP uses a best effort delivery approach.
Answer: BCE

QUESTION 152
Which application would be suited for UDP traffic?
A.  Web browsing
B.  downloading a program
C.  streaming television shows
D.  on-line shopping
Answer: C

QUESTION 153
Which two protocols are connection-oriented? (Choose two.)
A.  Ethernet
B.  PPP
C.  TCP
D.  UDP
Answer: BC

QUESTION 154
Which two parameters are determined during PPP LCP negotiation? (Choose two.)
A.   MRU
B.   connection speed
C.   authentication protocol
D.  anti-replay detection
Answer: AC

QUESTION 155
Which three steps are part of the PPP CHAP 3-way handshake? (Choose three.)
A.  The caller sends a challenge to the authenticator.
B.  The authenticator sends a challenge to the caller.
C.  The caller encrypts the challenge using a secret.
D.  The caller sends a success message to the authenticator.
E.  The authenticator encrypts the challenge using a secret.
Answer: BCE

QUESTION 156
You have been asked to use a 30 bit subnet mask to segment the following network block: 108.12.5.0. How many useable subnetworks and usable hosts could be created?
A.  32 networks with 8 hosts
B.  62 networks with 2 hosts
C.  30 networks with 16 hosts
D.  32 networks with 14 hosts
Answer: B
QUESTION 157
You have been asked to use a 28 bit subnet mask to segment the following network block: 108.12.5.0. How many usable hosts per sub-net could you create?
A.  10 hosts
B.  14 hosts
C.  12 hosts
D.  16 hosts
Answer: B

QUESTION 158
What are the usable hosts on the 192.168.1.24/29 network?

A. .24 through .48
B. .24 through .32
C.  .25 through .30
D.  .35 through .31
Answer: C

QUESTION 159
What are the usable hosts on the 200.50.12.64/26 network?

A. .65 through .126
B.  .64 through .127
C.  .66 through .128
D.  .65 through .127
Answer: A

QUESTION 160
You have been asked to use a 25 bit subnet mask to segment the following network block:
209.18.12.0. How many usable will there be per subnet?
A.   2 hosts
B.   120 hosts
C.   126 hosts
D.   255 hosts

Answer: C
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