ESTION 62
What is the maximum difference between a
NTP server's clock and the system clock for synchronization to be successful?
A. 60 seconds
B. 120 seconds
C. 600 seconds
D. 1000 seconds
Answer: D
QUESTION 63
Where are files queued for transmission
when using the configuration archive transfer-oncommit function?
A. /var/config
B. /var/queue
C. /var/transfer/queue
D. /var/transfer/config
Answer: D
QUESTION 64
Which command configures the router to send
SNMP link-related notifications such as up-down transitions and line status
changes?
A. set snmp trap-group my-trap-group link-status
B. set snmp trap-group my-trap-group categories
link
C. set snmp log link-status
D. set snmp trap link-status
Answer: B
QUESTION 65
Which naming convention is used by Juniper
Routers when archiving their configurations to a remote server?
A.yyyymmdd_HHMMSS_host-name_juniper.conf.gz
B. host-name_juniper.conf.gz_yyyymmdd_HHMMSS
C.yyyyymmdd_HHMMSS_host-name_juniper.conf
D. host-name_juniper.conf_yyyymmdd_HHMMSS
Answer: B
QUESTION 66
Which command allows you to view interface
usage details in real-time?
A. user@host> debug interface interface-name
B. user@host> monitor usage interface-name
C. user@host> monitor interface
interface-name
D. user@host> traceoptions interface
interface-name
Answer: C
QUESTION 67
The monitor traffic command closely
resembles which UNIX-based utility?
A. ps -x
B. passwd
C. ls -a-l
D. tcpdump
Answer: D
QUESTION 68
Which type of traffic will cause Policed
Discards errors on an interface on a JUNOS device?
A. Traffic that does not match any route in the
forwarding table.
B. Traffic that exceeds the bandwidth of the
interface.
C. Traffic of unsupported protocols on that
interface.
D. Traffic arriving on unknown virtual-circuits
on that interface.
Answer: C
QUESTION 69
If a SONET/SDH interface transmit link
fails between two JUNOS devices, which two alarms or defects would be seen on
those devices? (Choose two.)
A. LOS
B. REI
C. BIP-B3
D. RDI
Answer: AD
QUESTION 70
To troubleshoot interface problems, you can
use both the disable command and the deactivate command. Which two statements
are correct?
A. If the interface is disabled, the logical
unit will administratively shutdown.
B. If the interface is deactivated, the physical
interface will administratively shutdown.
C. If the interface is deactivated, the
interface configuration is ignored during commit.
D. If the interface is disabled, the logical
unit configuration is ignored during commit.
Answer: BC
QUESTION 71
In Ethernet networks, duplex mismatches
will lower performance. Which error statistics can be seen if a duplex mismatch
is present?
A. collisions
on the full-duplex side; runts on the half-duplex side
B. collisions on the full-duplex side;
collisions on the half-duplex side
C. collisions on the half-duplex side; framing
errors on the full-duplex side
D. collisions on the half-duplex side; giants on
the full-duplex side
Answer: C
QUESTION 72
When using the monitor traffic command to
view traffic arriving on an interface, which command would save the data
collected to a file on the router?
A. monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0 save
<file>
B. monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0 | write
<file>
C. monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0
write-file <file>
D. monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0 |
collect <file>
Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Which command would you type to see a
concise display of which interfaces are up and which are down?
A. show interfaces brief
B. show interfaces status
C. show ip interface brief
D. show interfaces terse
Answer: D
QUESTION 74
When troubleshooting ATM, which command
would allow you to test reachability from one side of an ATM cloud to the
other?
A. ping atm vci 0.100 interface at-0/1/0
end-to-end
B. ping atm vci 0.100 interface at-0/1/0 circuit
C. ping atm vci 0.100 interface at-0/1/0
far-end
D. ping atm vci 0.100 interface at-0/1/0
final-hop
Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Which three SONET network elements are used
for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
A. line
B. path
C. circuit
D. section
E. segment
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 76
What is used to view status messages sent
to a file named "test" as they are sent?
A. monitor
start test
B. show log test
C. view log test
D. show test
| realtime
Answer: A
QUESTION 77
Which command is used to retrieve the
serial numbers of a Juniper device?
A. show version
B. show chassis hardware
C. show hardware detail
D. view hardware database
Answer: B
QUESTION 78
Which command is used to show active alarms
on a Juniper device?
A. file list alarm
B. show chassis alarms
C. show chassis state
D. show hardware alarms
Answer: B
QUESTION 79
Which operational command allows a user to
view the exhaust temperatures of a Juniper device?
A. show chassis state
B. file list alarm
C. show chassis alarms
D. show chassis environment
Answer: D
QUESTION 80
Which command will show which message is
displayed on a Juniper Router's LCD status screen?
A. show chassislcd
B. show chassis fpd
C. show chassis craft-interface
D. show chassis status-window
Answer: C
QUESTION 81
Which command would allow you to login to
FPC 1 to collect FPC specific logs?
A. start shell fpc1
B. start shell tnp1
C. start shell tnp address 1
D. start shell pfe network fpc1
Answer: D
QUESTION 82
Which command will display the temperature
of the Routing Engine's CPU?
A. show chassis environment
B. show chassis routing-engine
C. show chassis temperatures
D. show chassis status
Answer: B
QUESTION 83
Which command allows you to decode packets
in JUNOS?
A. debug packet interface-name
B. show interface extensive
C. traceoptions interface-name
D. monitor traffic interface interface-name
Answer: D
QUESTION 84
The monitor traffic command provides access
to which utility?
A.tcpdump
B.telnet
C.traceroute
D.netstat
Answer: A
QUESTION 85
Which two statements regarding traceroute
on JUNOS devices are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Traceroute transmits ICMP echo-request
packets.
B. Traceroute transmits UDP packets.
C. Traceroute receives ICMP echo-reply packets.
D. Traceroute receives ICMP port-unreachable
packets.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 86
If you want to test if fragmentation is
causing problems on the network, which two ping command options are useful?
(Choose two.)
A. ttl
B. size
C. rapid
D. do-not-fragment
Answer: BD
QUESTION 87
Which command would initiate a loopback on
a Gigabit Ethernet interface ge-0/0/0?
A. # set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 loopback
B. # set interfaces ge-0/0/0 gigether-options
loopback
C. > set interfaces ge-0/0/0 loopback
D. > loopback ge-0/0/0
Answer: B
QUESTION 88
When a local loopback is activated on a PPP
serial link, what indicates that the local interface is good?
A. A ping to the local address succeeds.
B. A ping to the remote address succeeds.
C. A ping to
the remote address received a 'TTL expired' message.
D. The interface shows a flag indicating that a
loop is detected.
Answer: D
QUESTION 89
Which two loopback types are supported for
serial interfaces on Juniper devices? (Choose two.)
A. Local
B. Far
End
C. Remote
D. Bidirectional
Answer: AC
QUESTION 90
How is a loopback cleared on interface
ge-0/0/0?
A. Issue the operational command clear
interfaces ge-0/0/0 loopback local.
B. No command is necessary, the loopback
times-out in 5 minutes.
C. Issue the configuration command clear
interfaces ge-0/0/0 loopback, then commit.
D. Issue the configuration command delete
interfaces ge-0/0/0 gigether-optionsloopback , then commit.
Answer: D
QUESTION 91
Which CLI command is used to upgrade a
Juniper router?
A. load package
B. load override terminal
C. request system software add
D. request system software upgrade
Answer: C
QUESTION 92
When performing password recovery, which
command should be entered at the boot prompt?
A. boot -s
B. boot -r
C. boot single
D. boot recovery
Answer: A
QUESTION 93
What are three correct steps to reset a
lost root password? (Choose three.)
A. Press the TAB key when prompted.
B. Enter boot -p.
C. Enter recovery when prompted.
D. Commit the change.
E. Reboot.
Answer: CDE
QUESTION 94
In which routing table would you find an
OSPF V2 route?
A. ipv4-unicast
B. inet.0
C. inet.4
D. inet.ipv4
Answer: B
QUESTION 95
By default, which routing table is used to
store unicast IPv4 routes?
A. inet.0
B. inet.1
C. inet.2
D. inet.3
Answer: A
QUESTION 96
Which two statements are correct about
routing tables in JUNOS? (Choose two.)
A. There are separate tables for IPv4 and IPv6
called inet.0 and inet6.0 respectively.
B. They only contain the best possible route to
each destination.
C. All running protocols can populate the
routing tables at the same time.
D. Routes with the highest preference value are
placed as active routes in the routing table.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 97
Which type of routes are held in Inet.0?
A. multicast
and unicast IPv4 routes
B. ARP tables and MAC reachability
C. IP version 4 unicast routes
D. IP version 6 and IP version 4 routes
Answer: C
QUESTION 98
Which two statements are correct regarding
default protocol preference values? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF has a single preference value for both
internal and external routes.
B. RIP is preferred over OSPF external routes.
C. Direct, local, and static routes have the
same preference value.
D. OSPF's preference value is lower than BGP
(both IBGP and EBGP).
Answer: BD
QUESTION 99
What is the role of route preference?
A. It is used to determine which route should
become active.
B. It is used to select which routing table to
use for forwarding.
C. It is
used to determine what routes to accept into the routing table.
D. It is used to select the best route between
multiple equal cost paths.
Answer: A
QUESTION 100
What is the default protocol preference for
OSPF external routes?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 150
D. 160
Answer: C
QUESTION 101
When you display the routing table by
entering the show route command, what does the
* indicate?
A. The route is a direct route.
B. The route was selected as active.
C. The route is a default route.
D. The route was learned using a dynamic routing
protocol.
Answer: B
QUESTION 102
Which command allows viewing of only OSPF
routes?
A. show
ip ospf route
B. show ip
route protocol ospf
C. show
route protocol ospf
D. show ospf table
Answer: C
QUESTION 103
Which two statements are true of the
forwarding table? (Choose two.)
A. The forwarding table is stored in the control
plane only.
B. The forwarding table contains both active and
inactive routes.
C. The forwarding table is stored in the
control plane and the forwarding plane.
D. The forwarding table uses a longest match
lookup for forwarding decisions.
Answer: CD
QUESTION 104
Which statement is true about a forwarding
table?
A. It stores a subset of information from the
routing table.
B. It contains routes learned from all protocols
to a destination.
C. It provides a database for routes selected
and placed into the routing table.
D. Every routing protocol maintains its own
forwarding table.
Answer: A
QUESTION 105
Which statement accurately defines the role
of a Qualified Next Hop?
A. It is any alternative path for best effort
traffic.
B. It is the next hop of the active route to a
directly attached device.
C. It is the next hop for a route from a
qualified protocol.
D. It is an alternative next hop for a static
route.
Answer: D
QUESTION 106
What is correct regarding the configuration
shown below?
static route 0.0.0.0/0
qualified-next-hop 172.30.25.1 preference 7
next-hop 172.30.25.5
A. The next-hop 172.30.25.1 is selected because
the address has the lowest value.
B. The next-hop 172.30.25.1 is selected because
it is listed first.
C. The next-hop 172.30.25.1 is selected because
it is the lowest protocol preference.
D. The next-hop 172.30.25.5 is selected because
it is the lowest protocol preference.
Answer: D
QUESTION 107
What are three advantages of dynamic
routing protocols over static routing protocols?(Choose three.)
A. lower administrative overhead
B. increased network availability
C. greater network scalability
D. easier to implement qualified next hops
E. easier ECMP route implement
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 108
Which statement is correct about a Routing
Policy term?
A. A term must contain a "from"
statement.
B. A term acts like "if" and
"then" statements.
C. The most specific term has precedence.
D. Terms can be written in any order to achieve
the same behavior.
Answer: B
QUESTION 109
A routing policy has three terms and the
first term of the policy does not contain a terminating action. What will
become of the routes after they have been evaluated by the first term?
A. In the absence of a terminating action, all
routes are accepted.
B. The route will be evaluated by the second
term in the policy.
C. The default action will be applied.
D. In the absence of a termination action, all
routes are rejected.
Answer: B
QUESTION 110
Which statement is true about import and
export routing policies?
A. Import policies concern routes received and
determine which routes get put into the routing table.
B. Export policies concern routes received and
determine which routes get put into the routing table.
C. Export policies are applied before the
routing table.
D. Import polices are applied after the routing
table.
Answer: A
QUESTION 111
Your routing table contains four static
routes which you need to redistribute to your OSPF peers. Which method would
accomplish this?
A. Apply an import policy to OSPF; this will
import the static routes into OSPF.
B. Apply an export policy to protocol
"static"; this will export the routes to other protocols.
C. Apply an import policy to the forwarding
table; this will import the routes, allowing them to be forwarded to OSPF
neighbors.
D. Apply an export policy to OSPF; this will
export the static routes to your OSPF neighbors.
Answer: D
QUESTION 112
Which three are considered match criteria
in a policy? (Choose three.)
A. prefix-list
B. protocol ospf
C. next-term
D. AS path
E. prefix-term
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 113
What is a vaild match criteria for a
firewall filter?
A. from protocol tcp
B. fromurl
C. from community
D. from acl
Answer: A
QUESTION 114
Which two policy actions are considered
flow control actions? (Choose two.)
A. reject
B. community add
C. next term
D. next policy
Answer: CD
QUESTION 115
What is a vaild action for a firewall
filter?
A. then drop
B. then count
C. then allow
D. then communityadd
Answer: B
QUESTION 116
What happens when a route does not match
any user configured policies?
A. The route is rejected.
B. The route is accepted.
C. The route is given a lower priority.
D. The route is sent to the default policy.
Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Click the
Exhibit button.
term 1 {
from protocol ospf;
then {
preference 110;
accept;
})
term 2 {
from
protocol static;
then accept;}
term 3 {
from {
protocol
static;
route-filter
172.10.0.0/16 orlonger; }
then reject; }
term 4 {
from {
protocol
static;
route-filter
172.10.16.0/24 exact; }
then next policy;}
Given the policy shown in the exhibit, what
will happen to Static route 172.10.16.0/24?
A. accept
B. reject
C. next-policy
D. go to default policy
Answer: A
QUESTION 118
Which two commands are needed to create and
apply an export policy that advertises static routes to OSPF neighbors? (Choose
two.)
A. edit policy-options policy-statement
policy-name set term 1 from protocol static set term 1 then accept
B. edit ospf policy set from protocol static
set 1 then accept
C. set protocols OSPF export policy-name
D. set protocols OSPF policy policy-name
Answer: AC
QUESTION 119
You are configuring a firewall filter.
Which "from" criterion would match only those packets destined for
10.10.10.1?
A. [edit firewall filter test] root@router# set
term 1 from address 10.10.10.1
B. [edit firewall filter test] root@router# set
term 1 from destination-address 10.10.10.1
C. [edit firewall filter test] root@router# set
term 1 from destination 10.10.10.1
D. [edit firewall filter test]
Answer: B
QUESTION 120
How do you send static routes to a RIP
neighbor?
A. By default, RIP automatically sends static
routes.
B. Configure the static route with a next hop of
the RIP neighbor.
C. Configure redistribute static under [edit
protocols rip].
D. Apply an export policy within RIP that
matches on the routes, and accepts it.
Answer: D
QUESTION 121
Which two statements describe the default
routing policy for BGP? (Choose two.)
A. Advertise only locally originated routes.
B. Accept all BGP routes and import into inet.0.
C. Advertise all active BGP routes.
D. Advertise only EBGP routes.
Answer: BC
QUESTION 122
Click the Exhibit button.
term 1 {from {
source-address {
0.0.0.0/0;
}
destination-address {
10.1.0.0/16;
} }Then
{
log;reject;
}}
term 2 {
from
{
destination-address {
10.1.1.0/24;
} }
then
accept; }
term 3 {
from {
source-address {
20.2.0.0/16; }
destination-address {
10.1.0.0/16;
10.1.1.1/32 except;
} } }}
Given the firewall filter shown the
exhibit, a packet has a source IP address of 20.2.2.1 and a
destination address of 10.1.1.1. How can
the packet be changed to discard and count it?
A. rename term 4 to term 1
B. rename term 1 to term 5
C. insert term 4 before term 1
D. insert term 4 before term 3
Answer: C
QUESTION 123
What is the proper order for CoS processing
for ingress packets on a Juniper router?
A. Multifield Classifier > Forwarding Policy
> Policing > BA Classifier
B. Multifield Classifier > Policing > BA
Classifier > Forwarding Policy
C. BA Classifier > Policing > Multifield
Classifier > Forwarding Policy
D. BA Classifier > Forwarding Policy >
Policing > Multifield Classifier
Answer: C
QUESTION 124
What is the last CoS process performed
prior to a packet leaving a router?
A. Rewrite Marker
B. Multifield
Classifier
C. Policing
D. BA Classifier
Answer: A
QUESTION 125
What is the first CoS process performed
when a packet enters a JUNOS device?
A. Rewrite Marker
B. Multifield Classifier
C. Policing
D. BA Classifier
Answer: D
QUESTION 126
When is the BA Classifier engaged for
identifying the forwarding class of traffic in a Juniper router?
A. after a packet is identified by a multifield
classifier
B. after the traffic passes though a shaper
C. prior to ingress policing of traffic
D. while the packet is stored in the switching
fabric of the router
Answer: C
QUESTION 127
What is the primary purpose for the
classification of traffic in a router?
A. to use the classification to route traffic
B. to use the classification to reorder packets
from various sources
C. to use the classification to discard
malformed packets
D. to use the classification to provide the
configured service level
Answer: D
QUESTION 128
Which two options are reasons for using
traffic classification? (Choose two.)
A. to use the classification to route traffic
B. to use the classification to reorder packets
from various sources
C. to use the classification to discard
malformed packets
D. to use the classification to provide the
configured service level
Answer: AD
QUESTION 129
Rewrite rules are used in which CoS scenario?
A. When a single device is configured to
provide differentiated services.
B. When multiple devices in a network are
configured to useCoS to provide differentiated services.
C. When a device is used to connect to another
autonomous system.
D. When CoS is used to classifiy traffic as low
priority.
Answer: B
QUESTION 130
What is the purpose of classification,
rewrites, and queuing in Juniper routers?
A. 0to provide policy based routing
B. to provide class of service capabilities
C. to provide firewall filtering capabilities
D. to provide unified threat managment
Answer: B
QUESTION 131
What are three components of a scheduler?
(Choose three.)
A. Forwarding Class
B. Priority
C. TOS Marking
D. Buffer Size
E. RED Configuration
Answer: BDE
QUESTION 132
What are the contents of a scheduler?
A. A scheduler contains parameters that
describe how a queue should be serviced.
B. A scheduler contains traffic that is ready to
be transmitted.
C. A scheduler contains forwarding classes that
allow traffic to be forwarded.
D. A scheduler contains a map between the
classification of a packet and its forwarding class.
Answer: A
QUESTION 133
With which two does a scheduler map
associate? (Choose two.)
A. Scheduler
B. BA Classifier
C. Queues
D. Interface
Answer: CD
QUESTION 134
When configuring a scheduler map, which two
are referenced? (Choose two.)
A. Forwarding Class
B. Scheduler
C. Rewrite Rules
D. Priority
Answer: AB
QUESTION 135
Which command sequence shows traffic per
queue for an interface?
A. show interfaces queue ge-0/0/0
B. show statistics queue detail
C. show interfaces ge-0/0/0 statistics extensive
D. monitor interface ge-0/0/0 queue
Answer: A
QUESTION 136
Which command sequence displays queue
statistics for an interface?
A. monitor interface ge-0/0/0 queue
B. show interfaces queue ge-0/0/0
C. show interfaces ge-0/0/0 statistics extensive
D. show statistics queue detail
Answer: B
QUESTION 137
What represents the binary equivalence of 192.168.187.201?
A. 10101000 11001000 10101001 10101001
B. 11000000 10101100 10101011 11000101
C. 11000000 10101000 10111011 11001001
D. 11000100 10101010 10110011 11001011
Answer: C
QUESTION 138
What represents the binary equivalence
of96.6.231.148?
A. 10101000 11001000 10101001 10101001
B. 01010000 00010110 11010101 10100110
C. 01100000 00000110 11100111 10010100
D. 01100100 00100101 11100100 10010111
Answer: C
QUESTION 139
What represents the decimal equivalence of
10101100 00011111 11001001 11000101?
A. 172.28.187.189
B. 172.31.201.197
C. 172.30.231.182
D. 172.19.151.107
Answer: B
QUESTION 140
Which two statements accurately describe a
broadcast domain? (Choose two.)
A. Broadcast domains consist of devices that
connect to a common switch or hub.
B. Broadcast domains consist of a group of
devices that can be reached by sending a frame addressed to the Layer 2
broadcast address.
C. Broadcast domains require a gateway device
such as a router.
D. Broadcast domains consist of devices that
reside on the same sub-network.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 141
Which two statements best describes the
role of a router on a broadcast domain? (Choose two.)
A. Routers facilitate communications within a
broadcast domain.
B. Routers facilitate communications between
broadcast domains.
C. Routers are used to break up broadcast
domains into separate networks.
D. Routers are used to connect small broadcast
domains and form larger more efficient broadcast domains.
Answer: BC
QUESTION 142
Which two statements are true regarding an
Ethernet collision domain? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch is used, the collision domain
includes all devices connected to the switch.
B. If a hub is used, the collision domain
includes all devices connected to the hub.
C. If a hub is used, the collision domain is
limited to each device and the hub.
D. If a switch is used, the collision domain is
limited to each device and the switch.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 143
Which two statements are true regarding an
Ethernet collision domain? (Choose two.)
A. The likelihood of collisions occurring
increases when a switch is used.
B. The likelihood of collisions occurring
increases when a hub is used.
C. If a hub is used, the collision domain is limited
to each device and the hub.
D. If a switch is used, the collision domain is
limited to each device and the switch.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 144
Which three of the following options are
NOT fields found in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)
A. Version
B. Type
C. Source Port
D. Flags
E. Data
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 145
Which two fields are found in an Ethernet
frame? (Choose two.)
A. Version
B. TTL
C. Checksum
D. Flags
E. Data
Answer: CE
QUESTION 146
Given the host IP address of 192.168.100.60
and a network mask of 255.255.255.224 (or /27), which address represents the
correct network address for the referenced host?
A. 192.168.100.48
B. 192.168.100.16
C. 192.168.100.0
D. 192.168.100.32
Answer: D
QUESTION 147
Given the IP address range 192.168.100.0
through 192.168.100.255, which network mask segments these addresses into 16
subnets?
A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.255.240
C. 255.255.255.248
D. 255.255.255.252
Answer: B
QUESTION 148
Which two statements about subnet masks are
true? (Choose two.)
A. If a bit is turned on (1), the corresponding
bit in the IP address is used for the host portion.
B. If a bit is turned off (0), the corresponding
bit in the IP address is used for the host portion.
C. If a bit is turned on (1), the corresponding
bit in the IP address is used for the network prefix.
D. If a bit is turned off (0), the corresponding
bit in the IP address is used for the network prefix.
Answer: BC
QUESTION 149
You are the network administrator setting
up the IP network for a new branch office. You need at least 5 networks with 25
hosts each. You have been allocated a /24 network. Which prefix length will
satisfy the given requirements?
A. /24
B. /26
C. /27
D. /28
Answer: C
QUESTION 150
Which three statements describe the
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)? (Choose three.)
A. TCP is a transport layer protocol.
B. TCP is faster than the User Datagram Protocol
(UDP).
C. TCP provides delivery notification and error
checking mechanisms.
D. TCP uses a best effort delivery approach.
E. TCPapplication examples include HTTP and
SMTP.
Answer: ACE
QUESTION 151
Which three statements describe the User
Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose three.)
A. UDP provides delivery notification and error
checking mechanisms.
B. UDP is faster than the Transmission Control
Protocol (TCP).
C. UDP application examples include DNS and
VoIP.
D. UDP is an application layer protocol.
E. UDP uses a best effort delivery approach.
Answer: BCE
QUESTION 152
Which application would be suited for UDP
traffic?
A. Web browsing
B. downloading a program
C. streaming television shows
D. on-line shopping
Answer: C
QUESTION 153
Which two protocols are
connection-oriented? (Choose two.)
A. Ethernet
B. PPP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answer: BC
QUESTION 154
Which two parameters are determined during
PPP LCP negotiation? (Choose two.)
A. MRU
B. connection speed
C. authentication protocol
D. anti-replay detection
Answer: AC
QUESTION 155
Which three steps are part of the PPP CHAP
3-way handshake? (Choose three.)
A. The caller sends a challenge to the
authenticator.
B. The authenticator sends a challenge to the
caller.
C. The caller encrypts the challenge using a
secret.
D. The caller sends a success message to the
authenticator.
E. The authenticator encrypts the challenge
using a secret.
Answer: BCE
QUESTION 156
You have been asked to use a 30 bit subnet
mask to segment the following network block: 108.12.5.0. How many useable
subnetworks and usable hosts could be created?
A. 32 networks with 8 hosts
B. 62 networks with 2 hosts
C. 30 networks with 16 hosts
D. 32 networks with 14 hosts
Answer: B
QUESTION 157
You have been asked to use a 28 bit subnet
mask to segment the following network block: 108.12.5.0. How many usable hosts
per sub-net could you create?
A. 10 hosts
B. 14 hosts
C. 12 hosts
D. 16 hosts
Answer: B
QUESTION 158
What are the usable hosts on the
192.168.1.24/29 network?
A. .24
through .48
B. .24
through .32
C. .25 through .30
D. .35 through .31
Answer: C
QUESTION 159
What are the usable hosts on the
200.50.12.64/26 network?
A. .65
through .126
B. .64 through .127
C. .66 through .128
D. .65 through .127
Answer: A
QUESTION 160
You have been asked to use a 25 bit subnet
mask to segment the following network block:
209.18.12.0. How many usable will there be
per subnet?
A. 2 hosts
B. 120 hosts
C. 126 hosts
D. 255 hosts
Answer: C
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